Sunday, May 16, 2010

If a fruit is of a seedless variaty, is it still technically a fruit?

Ok so pretty much everyone knows that the definition of a fruit is that it has seeds i.e tomatos are a fruit because they have seeds etc.





But if you have a variaty that is grown as seedless (example grapes and satsumas ) is it still defined as a fruit?

If a fruit is of a seedless variaty, is it still technically a fruit?
Yes.





Although it is worth noting that the technical definition changes depending on who you ask. In the United States a tomato is legally a vegetable. The relevant Supreme Court case was Nix v. Hedden, in which the court ruled that tomatoes should be taxed based on how they are used / eaten (e.g., in salad and not on cereal) and thus be considered vegetables. They do acknowledge that a tomato is botanically a fruit.





To that end, the botanical definition of fruit is the ripened ovary of a flowering plant. This typically contains one or more seeds. However if the particular strain has been bred to not produce seeds (like bananas) the ripened ovary of the polinated flower still counts as a fruit.
Reply:yes it is
Reply:It certainly is..I dont eat figs because they've got seeds but I eat seedless oranges and seedless pears.
Reply:Yes, they are fruits regardless of absence of seeds.
Reply:Yes, it is still a fruit. The link below explained why it is still a fruit despite being seedless. It is just a genetic error that prevents the seed from forming properly, the seeds are there only it never grows big.


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